Question of omniscience

[Brandon]

Originally Posted by CLAspinster

I wouldn't call it mysticism. Knowledge of say, the Platonic forms, was akin to knowledge of mathematics. They are not hazy and vague but made clear by the light of reason.

Despite the fact that they're both abstract concepts, I don't see many similarities between math and morality.

It depends on whether you take the statement "God is good" as an identity statement or a subject-predicate one in the sense of "apples are red". Granted, there is probably an equivocation here and both interpretations probably have some truth in Xian doctrine (Seth?), but I have always thought of God as not just "something that is good" but the source of all good. And so, evil being the absence of good (God) makes both the terms good an evil dependent on Him.

If this is true, God isn't anything morally. He's neither good nor evil, since those terms are only applied to human actions after the fact. "God is good because He says He's good."